(Bamidbar 28:1-2) "And the L-rd spoke to Moses, saying: Command the children of Israel … My offering, My bread, etc." What is the intent of this? Because Moses said (Ibid. 27:16-17) "Let the L-rd appoint" (over Israel) "someone who will go out before them, etc." An analogy: A king had a wife who, before her death, charged him over her sons saying: I pray you, take care of my sons, etc. The king: Before you charge me over my sons, charge them over me, that they not rebel against me and not cheapen me. Thus the Holy One Blessed be He to Moses: Before you charge Me over My sons, charge them over Me, that they not cheapen Me and that they not exchange My honor for foreign gods. And thus is it written (Devarim 31:19-20) "And now, write for yourselves this song … When I bring them to the land … and they turn to other gods and spurn Me, etc." (Bamidbar, Ibid.) "My offering": the blood. "My bread": the devoted portions. You say this, but perhaps "My offering, My bread" is the blood? It is, therefore, written (of the devoted portions) (Vayikra 3:16) "And the Cohein shall smoke them upon the altar, the bread of a fire-offering for a sweet savor." It is not the second formulation that is to be posited, but the first — "my offering": the blood; "My bread": the devoted portions. "for My fires": the fistfuls (of the meal-offerings) and the frankincense. "My sweet savor": the libations. "shall you observe": that it be brought only from the Temple funds. "shall you observe": that Cohanim, Levites, and Israelites stand over them. "shall you observe": It is written here "shall you observe," and elsewhere (in respect to the Paschal lamb, Shemot 12:6) "shall you observe." Just as there, it had to be inspected four days prior to slaughtering, so, here. "shall you observe to offer to Me in its appointed time": What is the intent of this? From (Shemot 12:6) "and they shall slaughter it (the Paschal lamb)," I might think both on a weekday and on the Sabbath. And how would I satisfy (Ibid. 31:14) "Its (the Sabbath's) desecrators shall be put to death"? In the instance of other labors, besides the slaughtering of the Pesach. Or, even including the slaughtering of the Paschal lamb. And how would I satisfy "and they shall slaughter it"? On all the other days, besides the Sabbath. Or, even on the Sabbath? It is, therefore, written (Bamidbar 9:2) "And the children of Israel shall offer the Pesach in its appointed time" — even on the Sabbath. These are the words of R. Yoshiyah. R. Yonathan said: In this sense (i.e., the above) we have not yet heard it used. But, why is it written (Ibid. 28:2) "Command the children of Israel, etc." If to teach about the tamid (the daily burnt-offering) that it overrides the Sabbath, this is not necessary. For it is already written (Ibid. 9) "And on the Sabbath day, two lambs of the first year." What, then, is the intent of (2) "in its appointed time"? It is "extra" towards the formulation of an identity (gezeirah shavah), viz.: It is written here "in its appointed time," and elsewhere, (in respect to the Paschal lamb) "in its appointed time." Just as in this instance (of the daily burnt-offering), Sabbath is overridden, so, in that instance. (Bamidbar 28:3) "And you shall say to them": This is an exhortation to beth-din (to charge the people). "This is the fire-offering which you shall offer up to the L-rd … two for the day." Shimon b. Azzai says: "two for the day" — opposite the "day" (i.e., opposite the sun). You say this, but perhaps the meaning is: "two for the day" — an obligation (to be slaughtered) on that day? (Ibid. 4) "The one lamb shall you offer in the morning, and the other lamb shall you offer towards evening" already speaks of the obligation for the day. How, then, are we to understand (here) "two for the day"? As opposite the day (i.e., the sun) — whence they ruled: The morning tamid was slaughtered at the north-west corner (of the altar) at the second (slaughtering) ring, and the evening tamid at the north-east corner at the second ring. "the one lamb, etc." Why is this written? (It seems superfluous.) Because it is written (3) "And you shall say to them: This is the fire-offering, etc." and (Shemot 29:38) "And this is what you shall offer upon the altar," I might think that he should sacrifice four. It is, therefore, written "the one lamb" — not more than one. (Bamidbar 28:5) "and a tenth of an ephah": one of ten in an ephah. "flour": of wheat. You say this, but perhaps it may be of barley, spelt, oats or shifon (a kind of spelt). It is, therefore, written (Shemot 29:2) "Of wheat flour shall you make them." Since "flours" are mentioned in the Torah unqualified, and in one instance it is specified that it must be wheat flour, so, all "flours" in the Torah are to be only of wheat. (Bamidbar 28:5) "for the meal-offering mixed with oil of crushing": to exclude (oil that is exuded from) what is cooked. This tells me only of (oil that is kasher for) meal-offerings. Whence do I derive (the same for) the menorah? It is written (in that regard) (Vayikra 24:2) "Command the children of Israel that they take to you clear oil of beaten olives" — to exclude what is cooked.
Sifrei Bamidbar 142
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